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#1
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Yieldmat function
Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ?
The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#2
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Yieldmat function
Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of
settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#3
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Yieldmat function
I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond.
Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#4
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Yieldmat function
I must disagree.
the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#5
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Yieldmat function
I wonder if I have misunderstood what the formula does
I am assuming that interest on the bond is paid out annually, so if I buy the bond on the anniversery of the issue date, interest on the period before my purchase is not an issue My first example involves cash flows as follows -100 Sett Date (when I buy the bond) 31/12/2009 +110 Maturity (when the bond terminates and pays capital and one years interest 31/12/2010 Clearly here the return is 10% and the bond issue date is not relevant The reason I showed issue date as 1 day before settlement date is the formula will not accept the same issue date and settlement date Is the formula assuming that no interest is paid out, but accumulates in the bond - if so, I see that this will give a different result depending on issue date Can you tell me the underlying calculation for the YieldMat function? If this is the case, is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward - or should I use the formula with issue date one day before settlement, which (apart from the tiny interest difference) gives me an answer the same as I would get using IRR with the cash flows. Rgds "Sean Timmons" wrote: I must disagree. the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#6
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Yieldmat function
Yeah, YIELDMAT is really for people purchasing a bond after it's been issues
to another. In these cases, a portion of the interest is held by the prior owner of the bond, and the remaining goes to you. Bonds typically mature at longer increments (10, 20, 30 years), so it's a bigger issue in those situations. you may want YIELDDISC() "BarryHWhite" wrote: I wonder if I have misunderstood what the formula does I am assuming that interest on the bond is paid out annually, so if I buy the bond on the anniversery of the issue date, interest on the period before my purchase is not an issue My first example involves cash flows as follows -100 Sett Date (when I buy the bond) 31/12/2009 +110 Maturity (when the bond terminates and pays capital and one years interest 31/12/2010 Clearly here the return is 10% and the bond issue date is not relevant The reason I showed issue date as 1 day before settlement date is the formula will not accept the same issue date and settlement date Is the formula assuming that no interest is paid out, but accumulates in the bond - if so, I see that this will give a different result depending on issue date Can you tell me the underlying calculation for the YieldMat function? If this is the case, is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward - or should I use the formula with issue date one day before settlement, which (apart from the tiny interest difference) gives me an answer the same as I would get using IRR with the cash flows. Rgds "Sean Timmons" wrote: I must disagree. the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#7
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Yieldmat function
"BarryHWhite" wrote:
is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward Use YIELD(). Although in bond parlance, there is usually a difference between the terms (current) "yield" and "yield to maturity", apparently the Excel YIELD() returns YTM, at least when the bond is held for more than one coupon period. This is self-evident if you compare the results of YIELD() and IRR() or RATE() in some simple cases, for example a bond held from 1/1/2009 through 1/1/2012 priced at $90 (per $100 face value) with semi-annual coupons at the rate of 5%. Caveat emptor: I cannot vouch for the results of YIELD() for bonds held for one coupon period or less, or for bonds with maturity dates that are not multple of coupon periods (!). Moreover, I have not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that pay all the interest at maturity, although I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "redemption" parameter. PS: I have also not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that are purchased after the issue date -- ergo, we usually need to pay some accrued unpaid interest for part of the coupon period that includes the settlement date. But similarly, I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "pr" (price) parameter. Like you, I have not had much success with YIELDMAT(), and it is unclear what its algorithm is, notwithstanding a formula that some participants posted in response to my inquiry in another thread. I not yet had a chance to fully experiment with YIELD(). But it looks promising since it returns results that are consistent with IRR() and RATE() in circumstances that are conducive to using those functions; and those results are very different from the YIELDMAT() results, which I believe are incorrect in those circumstances. FYI, it is not surprising for any valid YTM function or formula to return results that differ from XIRR(), even when the date count mode ("basis") is actual/actual. The differences are due, at least in part, to apparently widely-accepted conventions for determining YTM when the coupon frequency is more than once per year. Also, there seems to be a wide variety of interpretations or "rules of thumbs" that affect the details of the YTM formulation, especially when fractional coupon periods are involved. Even the HP 12C formula is questionable, IMHO. But I digress. I tried to initiate an academic discussion of all this in my thread ("Please explain YIELDMAT function"), but to no avail so far. However, last weekend was a holiday in both the US and Canada, and some of the participants who have demonstrated financial wizardry in the past might still be on vacations or just returning from them. In the meantime, I hope my comments help. ----- original message ----- "BarryHWhite" wrote in message ... I wonder if I have misunderstood what the formula does I am assuming that interest on the bond is paid out annually, so if I buy the bond on the anniversery of the issue date, interest on the period before my purchase is not an issue My first example involves cash flows as follows -100 Sett Date (when I buy the bond) 31/12/2009 +110 Maturity (when the bond terminates and pays capital and one years interest 31/12/2010 Clearly here the return is 10% and the bond issue date is not relevant The reason I showed issue date as 1 day before settlement date is the formula will not accept the same issue date and settlement date Is the formula assuming that no interest is paid out, but accumulates in the bond - if so, I see that this will give a different result depending on issue date Can you tell me the underlying calculation for the YieldMat function? If this is the case, is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward - or should I use the formula with issue date one day before settlement, which (apart from the tiny interest difference) gives me an answer the same as I would get using IRR with the cash flows. Rgds "Sean Timmons" wrote: I must disagree. the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#8
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Yieldmat function
Thanks, JoeU2004 I will play with this function and see if it helps
I am very surprised that this is so difficult There must be many people like me who just want to know when they buy a bond during its life, at a given price, with a given interest rate and maturity date, which pays out interest each year, what is the Yield to Maturity (same basis as an IRR calc) Incidentally UK practise when you buy you pay in addition to the "clean" price, the accumulated interest from the last payment date. When the first interest payment is made, you get the total but have paid the seller for his part. This I think should be ignored in the calc, and the price used should be the clean price, although strictly you lose a bit on interest by paying the price with interest up front, but get the first interst payment later in the year I will keep you posted, thanks for your thoughts so far "JoeU2004" wrote: "BarryHWhite" wrote: is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward Use YIELD(). Although in bond parlance, there is usually a difference between the terms (current) "yield" and "yield to maturity", apparently the Excel YIELD() returns YTM, at least when the bond is held for more than one coupon period. This is self-evident if you compare the results of YIELD() and IRR() or RATE() in some simple cases, for example a bond held from 1/1/2009 through 1/1/2012 priced at $90 (per $100 face value) with semi-annual coupons at the rate of 5%. Caveat emptor: I cannot vouch for the results of YIELD() for bonds held for one coupon period or less, or for bonds with maturity dates that are not multple of coupon periods (!). Moreover, I have not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that pay all the interest at maturity, although I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "redemption" parameter. PS: I have also not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that are purchased after the issue date -- ergo, we usually need to pay some accrued unpaid interest for part of the coupon period that includes the settlement date. But similarly, I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "pr" (price) parameter. Like you, I have not had much success with YIELDMAT(), and it is unclear what its algorithm is, notwithstanding a formula that some participants posted in response to my inquiry in another thread. I not yet had a chance to fully experiment with YIELD(). But it looks promising since it returns results that are consistent with IRR() and RATE() in circumstances that are conducive to using those functions; and those results are very different from the YIELDMAT() results, which I believe are incorrect in those circumstances. FYI, it is not surprising for any valid YTM function or formula to return results that differ from XIRR(), even when the date count mode ("basis") is actual/actual. The differences are due, at least in part, to apparently widely-accepted conventions for determining YTM when the coupon frequency is more than once per year. Also, there seems to be a wide variety of interpretations or "rules of thumbs" that affect the details of the YTM formulation, especially when fractional coupon periods are involved. Even the HP 12C formula is questionable, IMHO. But I digress. I tried to initiate an academic discussion of all this in my thread ("Please explain YIELDMAT function"), but to no avail so far. However, last weekend was a holiday in both the US and Canada, and some of the participants who have demonstrated financial wizardry in the past might still be on vacations or just returning from them. In the meantime, I hope my comments help. ----- original message ----- "BarryHWhite" wrote in message ... I wonder if I have misunderstood what the formula does I am assuming that interest on the bond is paid out annually, so if I buy the bond on the anniversery of the issue date, interest on the period before my purchase is not an issue My first example involves cash flows as follows -100 Sett Date (when I buy the bond) 31/12/2009 +110 Maturity (when the bond terminates and pays capital and one years interest 31/12/2010 Clearly here the return is 10% and the bond issue date is not relevant The reason I showed issue date as 1 day before settlement date is the formula will not accept the same issue date and settlement date Is the formula assuming that no interest is paid out, but accumulates in the bond - if so, I see that this will give a different result depending on issue date Can you tell me the underlying calculation for the YieldMat function? If this is the case, is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward - or should I use the formula with issue date one day before settlement, which (apart from the tiny interest difference) gives me an answer the same as I would get using IRR with the cash flows. Rgds "Sean Timmons" wrote: I must disagree. the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
#9
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Yieldmat function
"BarryHWhite" wrote:
I am very surprised that this is so difficult[.] There must be many people like me who just want to know when they buy a bond during its life, at a given price, with a given interest rate and maturity date, which pays out interest each year, what is the Yield to Maturity And in the States, we rely on the broker to tell us that. Every text that I consulted state up-front that the YTM computation is difficult and mysterious because some aspects are subject to interpretation. There are many different "rules of thumbs". Most texts cover only the simple cases. Incidentally UK practise when you buy you pay in addition to the "clean" price, the accumulated interest from the last payment date. When the first interest payment is made, you get the total but have paid the seller for his part. This I think should be ignored in the calc I disagree. For the purposes of computing YTM, I believe the unpaid accrued interest that the buyer pays to the seller should be added to the price to correctly reflect the cash flow. In fact, returning to your original question, that is why I believe YIELDMAT() requires the issue date in addition to the settlement date: to compute the unpaid accrued interest before the settlement date. I expected that was the added value of YIELDMAT() over YIELD(). However, I was unable to confirm that because I was never able to reverse-engineer the YIELDMAT() computation and come close to its result. although strictly you lose a bit on interest by paying the price with interest up front, but get the first interst payment later in the year ..... Which impacts the cash flow model. Remember: YTM is all about the time-value of money. Either you have to add the unpaid accrued interest before settlement to the price, or you have to subtract it from the first coupon payment after settlement. The latter does not correctly reflect the cash flow timing, and it is difficult to formulate "neatly". It is much easier to add it to the price; and in fact, that is where it belongs in the timing of the cash flows. FYI, the HP 12C YTM function does just that. And my broker accounts for that when they quote the YTM. But of course, that only matters when you are buying a "used" bond ;-). ----- original message ----- "BarryHWhite" wrote in message ... Thanks, JoeU2004 I will play with this function and see if it helps I am very surprised that this is so difficult There must be many people like me who just want to know when they buy a bond during its life, at a given price, with a given interest rate and maturity date, which pays out interest each year, what is the Yield to Maturity (same basis as an IRR calc) Incidentally UK practise when you buy you pay in addition to the "clean" price, the accumulated interest from the last payment date. When the first interest payment is made, you get the total but have paid the seller for his part. This I think should be ignored in the calc, and the price used should be the clean price, although strictly you lose a bit on interest by paying the price with interest up front, but get the first interst payment later in the year I will keep you posted, thanks for your thoughts so far "JoeU2004" wrote: "BarryHWhite" wrote: is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward Use YIELD(). Although in bond parlance, there is usually a difference between the terms (current) "yield" and "yield to maturity", apparently the Excel YIELD() returns YTM, at least when the bond is held for more than one coupon period. This is self-evident if you compare the results of YIELD() and IRR() or RATE() in some simple cases, for example a bond held from 1/1/2009 through 1/1/2012 priced at $90 (per $100 face value) with semi-annual coupons at the rate of 5%. Caveat emptor: I cannot vouch for the results of YIELD() for bonds held for one coupon period or less, or for bonds with maturity dates that are not multple of coupon periods (!). Moreover, I have not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that pay all the interest at maturity, although I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "redemption" parameter. PS: I have also not tried to use YIELD() for bonds that are purchased after the issue date -- ergo, we usually need to pay some accrued unpaid interest for part of the coupon period that includes the settlement date. But similarly, I suspect we can make it return something reasonable by fudging the "pr" (price) parameter. Like you, I have not had much success with YIELDMAT(), and it is unclear what its algorithm is, notwithstanding a formula that some participants posted in response to my inquiry in another thread. I not yet had a chance to fully experiment with YIELD(). But it looks promising since it returns results that are consistent with IRR() and RATE() in circumstances that are conducive to using those functions; and those results are very different from the YIELDMAT() results, which I believe are incorrect in those circumstances. FYI, it is not surprising for any valid YTM function or formula to return results that differ from XIRR(), even when the date count mode ("basis") is actual/actual. The differences are due, at least in part, to apparently widely-accepted conventions for determining YTM when the coupon frequency is more than once per year. Also, there seems to be a wide variety of interpretations or "rules of thumbs" that affect the details of the YTM formulation, especially when fractional coupon periods are involved. Even the HP 12C formula is questionable, IMHO. But I digress. I tried to initiate an academic discussion of all this in my thread ("Please explain YIELDMAT function"), but to no avail so far. However, last weekend was a holiday in both the US and Canada, and some of the participants who have demonstrated financial wizardry in the past might still be on vacations or just returning from them. In the meantime, I hope my comments help. ----- original message ----- "BarryHWhite" wrote in message ... I wonder if I have misunderstood what the formula does I am assuming that interest on the bond is paid out annually, so if I buy the bond on the anniversery of the issue date, interest on the period before my purchase is not an issue My first example involves cash flows as follows -100 Sett Date (when I buy the bond) 31/12/2009 +110 Maturity (when the bond terminates and pays capital and one years interest 31/12/2010 Clearly here the return is 10% and the bond issue date is not relevant The reason I showed issue date as 1 day before settlement date is the formula will not accept the same issue date and settlement date Is the formula assuming that no interest is paid out, but accumulates in the bond - if so, I see that this will give a different result depending on issue date Can you tell me the underlying calculation for the YieldMat function? If this is the case, is there a formula which assumes interest is paid out and calculates the cash flows from settlement date forward - or should I use the formula with issue date one day before settlement, which (apart from the tiny interest difference) gives me an answer the same as I would get using IRR with the cash flows. Rgds "Sean Timmons" wrote: I must disagree. the bond has achieved a portion of maturity prior to settlement. In the below examples, 1 day and 1 year respectively. The clear indication is that those days you do not have the bond in "possession" do not accumulate interest in your name. (Please note, in the first example above, the return is not precisely 100%, though the change occurs at a third decimal). Hope thsi helps! "BarryHWhite" wrote: I think that the Date of Settlement was the date I purchased the bond. Nothing to do with the original issue date, nor the maturity date The parameters are Syntax: YIELDMAT(S, M, I, R, PR[, B]) S = settlement date M = maturity date I = issue date R = interest rate at date of issue PR = the price of the security per $100 face value B = (Optional) the day count basis to be used: 0 or omitted 30/360 So My question remains Example (dates UK format dd mm yy) Yield to maturity 10.00% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 30/12/2009 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 But if the Issue date changes you get Yield to maturity 9.09% Sett Date 31/12/2009 Maturity 31/12/2010 Issue Date 31/12/2008 Coupon yearly 10.000% Price now 100.00 Days basis 3 Which is wrong - you are paying out 100 now at 10% and will get 110 in one year, so the yield to maturity should be 10% - does not matter when the bond was issued "Sean Timmons" wrote: Based on MS Help, the rate and term are based on date of issue (not date of settlement). So, if the security was issues on 1/1/08 on a 30 year bond, the maturity date is 1/1/38, regardless of settlement date. "BarryHWhite" wrote: Why does Yieldmat include an issue date ? The yield to maturity should be from the settlement date to the maturity date, subject to the rate of interest and the price of the bond It does not matter when in the past it was issued However I see that changing the issue date changes the yield to maturity Help please |
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