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Yes, they are equivalent.
You can use whatever gives you the proper object. -- Regards, Tom Ogilvy "Alan" wrote in message ... "Tom Ogilvy" wrote in message ... Dim r1 as Range newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Activate set r1 = newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A2") set r1 = r1.Parent.Range(r1, r1.End(xlToRight)) set r1 = r1.parent.Range(r1, r1.End(xlDown)) r1.AutoFilter selection will refer to the selection in the instance of Excel with the code. You will need to fully qualify references to objects in the other instance. Hi Tom (or anyone else who cares to join the discussion), This is for my (and others') understanding of the use of the 'parent' property. In your above answer, what is the (conceptual?) difference between the following two statements? set r1 = r1.Parent.Range(r1, r1.End(xlToRight)) set r1 = newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range(r1, r1.End(xlToRight)) I understood that the parent object (pObj) of a given object (gObj) is the object that 'contains' our gObj. If I then understand the excel object model (big assumption!) the following expressions are equivalent in the example above: r1.parent newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1") since newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1") is the object that 'contains' newBook.Worksheets("Sheet1").range("A2") Am I missing something here? Or is it perhaps just a matter of taste? Thanks in advance, Alan. |
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