That would be a rather backward way of doing things, since your DATEDIF
functions were being concatenated into a text string.

If A1 is your inservice date, and B1 is your period date, and you really
need exact daily depreciation (though I wouldn't know why), I'd be more
inclined to use

=(B1-A1)*SLN(1000,0,DATE(YEAR(A1)+10,MONTH(A1),DAY(A1))-A1)

(using SLN allows you to take salvage into account). You'd be a little
less accurate with

=(B1-A1)*SLN(1000, 0, 3652.5)

depending on the timing of leap years - you may be off by a dime or so
at any one point.


In article ,
Peter Burkes <Peter wrote:

Once the period of time between the two dates is calculated, is there any way
to allocate a certian amount of money over that period in terms of straight
line depreciation. For example:

If the cost of an asset is $1000 and it is depreciated over a 10 year
period, the asset would be depreciated $100/year
($1,000/10years=$100/year;salvage value being ignored).

So basically...once the annual depreciation is determined ($100 for the
above example), can I take the DATEDIF cell and multiply it by the annual
depreciation for the asset...taking into account years, months, and days?