Why would it not be proportional to each contribution? For
example,assume a purchase of $100,000 is planned with a 25% downpayment
and four investors (partners) are planning the following contributions
to the $25,000 deposit:
Investor A $4,000; Investor B $5,000; Investor C $6,000 and
Investor D $10,000 resulting in the following share proportions of
all financial obligations and benefits: Investor A = ($4,000/$25,000)
= 16%: Investor B = ($5,000/$25,000) = 20%; Investor C =
($6,000/$25,000) = 24% and Investor D = ($10,000/$25,000) = 40%.
As previously stated, the Investors, adding up to 100%, share each
individual proportion of costs that are incurred throughout the holding
of the asset as well as benefitting in the same proportionss resulting
from the eventual sale of the asset.
I hope I've covered everything. GeorgeF


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GeorgeF
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