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On Jan 7, 6:02*pm, "Carl LaFong" wrote:
I am trying to build a graph in Excel that represents my total return based on a hypothetical $10,000 investment, so the "correct" numbers are important. If I use my quarterly numbers, the line moves to $11,681. You are continuing to mix two different methodogies. You arrive at $11,681 by computing the annual rate based on the product of the quarterly XIRR rates. I have already demonstrated that that is incorrect. And I tried to offer an explanation of why it is incorrect, using a mathematical "argument" (not really a proof). If you apply the quarterly XIRR correctly, you should compute exactly your quarter-end values as well as your year-end value ($12,011). Since you still have not included sufficient data (namely all of the interim reinvestmented values and dates), I cannot demonstrate by using your example. However, I can demonstrate using the Wellington Fund (VWELX) data. See below. You summarized the VWELX performance as follows: "Average annual return": 8.34 (this is aka total return, with all distributions reinvested) . "Total returns" for the 4 quarters: 1.14, 4.91, 3.01, -0.88 (likewise with all distributions reinvested)." Using the VWLEX distribution and price history, I have constructed the following cash flows based on a hypothetical initial investment of $10,000 on 12/31/2006. (Forgive me if the columns do not line up.) Date Value Price/sh Shares Distrib/sh 12/31/2006 -10,000.00 32.43 308.3565 3/26/2007 -67.84 32.69 2.0752 0.2200 3/31/2007 10,116.97 32.59 310.4317 3/31/2007 -10,116.97 32.59 310.4317 6/25/2007 -83.82 32.69 2.5640 0.2700 6/30/2007 10,616.81 33.92 312.9956 6/30/2007 -10,616.81 33.92 312.9956 9/24/2007 -81.38 34.69 2.3459 0.2600 9/30/2007 10,932.89 34.67 315.3415 9/30/2007 -10,932.89 34.67 315.3415 12/28/2007 -553.11 32.63 16.9509 1.7540 12/31/2007 10,839.38 32.62 332.2925 Using the endBalance/startBalance methodology, I compute quarterly and annual results that are "close" to what you reported, namely: quarterly rates of 1.1697%, 4.9406%, 2.9772%, -0.8553%, and annual rate of 8.3938%. I have not yet determined the cause of the small discrepancy. I thought it might be the expense ratio of 0.30%. But when I factor that in, prorated appropriately, my numbers still do not match. Nonetheless, I think my numbers are close enough to validate the table above. The quarterly XIRRs are 0.4911%, 4.1103%, 2.2096% and -5.9044%. The annual XIRR is 0.5259%. I will use the first quarter figures to demonstrate how to derive the quarter-end value of $10,116.97. First, the daily rate is derived in I1 from the quarterly XIRR by the following formula: =rate(A3-A1, 0, -1, 1+F3) where A3 is 3/31/2007, A1 is 12/31/2006, and F3 is 0.4911%. Then the quarter-end value is the sum of the appreciated values of each cash flow, computed as follows: =fv(I1, A3-A1, 0, B1) + fv(I1, A3-A2, 0, B2) where B1 is -10,000.00, A2 is 3/26/2007, and B2 is -67.84. That evaluates to 10,049.11 + 67.86, which is indeed 10,116.97, the quarter- end value on 3/31/2007. You can repeat that process for each quarter as well as for the annual figure. Thus, there is nothing inconsistent between the quarterly XIRRs and the annual XIRR. They simply do not combine in the same manner as quarterly and annual rates based on the endBalance/startBalance method. Barring another method, the only choice I see is to wait till year end and use the RATE-computed quarterly averages and give up on using Excel to directly calculate quarterly total returns that correspond to industry standards. The problem is not with Excel, but with your application of the formulas. All of my computations are done using Excel. As I have demonstrated, it appears that the "industry" (at least the Wellington Fund) uses the endBalance/startBalance method. I believe I stated that at the outset. Any further insights? What assumptions would you make for the purposes of my graph? HTH. |
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